I’ve wondered that myself. Afaik, there’s no real information about historical vision acuity beyond the extreme end where it amounts to being blind.
I have to think that some percentage of people had vision deficits that were bad enough to need glasses and from there up to being not-quite-blind. I know that we hover around 20+ percent of the world population being myopic nowadays. If it was even half that for millennia, how could that not influence damn near everything?
I’ve wondered that myself. Afaik, there’s no real information about historical vision acuity beyond the extreme end where it amounts to being blind.
I have to think that some percentage of people had vision deficits that were bad enough to need glasses and from there up to being not-quite-blind. I know that we hover around 20+ percent of the world population being myopic nowadays. If it was even half that for millennia, how could that not influence damn near everything?