I can accept the fact that on a Roulette wheel (as long as there are no defects or imbalances in the wheel or ball) that the odds are the same each spin and previous spin outcomes have no influence over the current spin. However, if I see black come up 32 times in a row I am betting on red for the next spin.
Now you have 2 choices: the door you chose, or the only other door left. One has a goat and one has a car. That’s fifty-fifty.
In your explanation, the door originally had a 1% chance, but after showing 98 goats, it has a 50% chance.
The important thing is that the host will always show you a goat, meaning the only way the other door has another goat is if you just so happened to pick the car the first time.
Take the situation to the extreme and imagine a hundred doors, and after you pick a door, the host opens 98 doors, all of them with goats behind them. Now which seems more likely, that you chose right the first time, or that the other door has the car?
The host’s intentions are irrelevant. Numerically, there are only two choices. That makes it fifty-fifty.
You think that even in the hundred-door case? Test it. Hell, even test it in the 3 door case. It is empirically not 50%.
If the host had an even chance to show you either door, you’d be right, but since the host always shows you a goat, the two events (picking a door and choosing whether to switch) are no longer independent, since if you pick a goat it forces the host to pick the other goat.
No. Taking it to the extreme with 100 doors, your first pick was a 1% chance to get the car. The host then shows you 98 other doors that all have goats.
What’s more likely? That you picked the right door when it was 100:1? Or that the other door is the one with the car?
There are 2 choices so they are equally likely